CLWA Sample Examination Questions

CLWA Sample Examination Questions Time allowed for examination 2 hours Material supplied with examination Answer Sheet Total marks 40 marks total Pass 80% (32 marks) To calculate % add total marks obtained = /40 x 100% = % Permissible material for examination (to be supplied by candidate) CAR, CAO Parts 20 to 95.2, AIP Book En Route Supplement Australia (ERSA) Complete En Route Charts (ERC) (Low) 1 / 2 and 3 / 4 Planning Chart (AUS PCA) VTCs (Hobart & Brisbane) For rules, procedures, and aeronautical information including chart interpretation, the examination questions are based solely on the above-permitted publications. A candidate may, if desired, use the Jeppesen Airway Manual (instead of the CASA documents) as the reference document for the examination. Candidates are warned that if an answer is incorrect due to being based on non-casa documents, the answer supported by the CASA document will prevail. NO OTHER REFERENCE MATERIAL IS PERMITTED E.&O.E. 1

Q1. Which of the following flights would be classified as an aerial work flight? a. a flight carrying two passengers who are only paying for the hire of the aeroplane b. a flight carrying two passengers for no remuneration c. a flight to undertake fish spotting operations for a professional fish canning company d. a flight carrying passengers to and from fixed terminal on fixed schedules for hire and reward Q2. Which of the following conditions apply to the carriage of cargo in an unoccupied control seat of an aircraft with a MTOW < 5700kg? a. the cargo maximum weight must not exceed 77kg b. the cargo maximum weight is 77kg, it must be restrained and the flight controls removed or protected c. the cargo must not weigh more than 77kg and restrained only if the flight controls cannot be removed d. the cargo need only be restrained if it weighs more than 77kg Q3. You are the single pilot crew of a charter flight from Carnarvon to Geraldton in Western Australia. Which of the following documents must be on board? a. certificate of registration and certificate of airworthiness b. flight manual and medical of the flight crew c. certificate of registration and aircraft flight manual d. flight crew licence and certificate of airworthiness if the maintenance release is not carried Q4. If the QNH is 970 hpa, the lowest available flight level would be : a. FL115 b. FL120 c. FL125 d. FL130 E.&O.E. 2

Q5. The only animals that may be carried outside a confined crate and in the passenger compartment of the aircraft is : a. any small domestic pet b. a guide dog provided special conditions are met c. a small container of insects provided their number is of no risk to passengers d. a guide dog provided it is placed on a seat next to its owner Q6. You plan to undertake a VFR charter in a single engine aircraft over water. Your aircraft is normally prohibited from this type of operation by the Civil Aviation Regulations. However, you may undertake this flight if : a. all occupant wear life jackets at all times b. you carry freight only c. you provide life jackets for each passenger and crew member d. you fly above 2000ft AMSL at all times during which the flight plan route is greater than gliding distance from land Q7. Which of the following would be a requirement if you were rostered for a tour of duty in excess of 11 hours but not exceeding 15 hours? a. the flight is conducted to VFR procedures and in an aircraft with a MTOW < 5700kg b. the duty is always preceded by a minimum rest period of 24 hours c. the duty includes a total rest period free from duty of two hours d. no more than two tours of duty in excess of 11 hours are conducted in any 7 day period Q8. You are to undertake an aerial work flight in an aircraft with a MTOW < 5700 kg. Which one of the following instruments can be unserviceable for the flight? a. airspeed indicator b. directional gyro c. outside air temperature d. direct reading magnetic compass E.&O.E. 3

Q9. Immediately prior to take off on every flight the pilot in command shall : a. check the fuel for contamination b. check the flight controls for full and free movement c. brief passengers on the operation of emergency exits d. check the fuel for contamination and check the flight controls for full and free movement Q10. You are planning a VFR charter flight. You must plan for an alternate aerodrome if your arrival at the destination is during the currency of or 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of which of the following : a. more than 4/8 th total cloud at or below 1500ft AMSL b. more than 4/8 th cloud at 1500ft AGL c. less than 4/8 th total cloud below 1500ft AGL d. more than 4/8 th total cloud below 1500ft AGL Q11. If a quantity of fuel likely to create a fire hazard is spilled on or within 15m of an aircraft during refueling operations or ground fueling equipment : a. the refueling operation must be suspended b. the refueling may continue provided the passengers are removed to a distance of at least 15m from the aircraft c. the fuel operations must be suspended, airport fire services notified and passengers removed to a distance of at least 15m d. passengers may remain on board provided that they are made aware of the spill and the airport fire services are notified Q12. Under which of the following circumstances must seat belts be worn by all occupants of the aircraft? a. during cruise at 1000ft AGL b. during an instrument approach c. at all times E.&O.E. 4

Q13. Yesterday was a rest day. At 2100 local standard time (LST) today you completed a tour of duty which had been extended from 11 hours to 12 hours. You are not restricted by the flight time limits for 7, 30 or 365 consecutive days. What is the earliest time tomorrow at which you may commence a tour of duty rostered for 10 hours? a. 0900 LST b. 1000 LST c. 1100 LST d. 1300 LST Q14. Dropping of leaflets from an aeroplane always requires the specific approval of the Authority if the drop site is located : a. in a danger area b. in an MBZ c. at an ALA d. at a licensed aerodrome Q15. Which of the following flights would be classified as a charter operation? a. the carriage of passengers, in an aircraft not generally available for use by persons to and from fixed terminals in accordance with fixed schedules b. the carriage of members of the public to and from fixed terminals in accordance with fixed schedules c. a single flight carrying for the purposes of trade property of the hirer of the aircraft d. flights where the aircraft is hired for police use Q16. Within an ADIZ, an intercepting aircraft performs a climbing turn of 90 or more without crossing the line of sight of the intercepted aircraft. This would be interpreted as : a. you have been intercepted follow me b. land at the nearest aerodrome c. leave the area immediately d. you may proceed E.&O.E. 5

Q17. The information you must provide in a written accident report shall include : a. the type and registration marks of the aircraft b. the airframe hours remaining until the next inspection c. your ARN d. the expiry date of your medical Q18. You must descend in a straight line prior to landing : a. at least 500m from the runway threshold b. at least 500ft from the aerodrome perimeter c. as required by normal navigation d. at least 500m from the aerodrome perimeter Q19. A METAR refers to : a. an aerodrome report issued when conditions deteriorate below a set minima b. a routine report c. a trend type forecast d. an aerodrome forecast Q20. What is the meaning of a steady green light directed at you from the tower whilst you are in flight? a. return for a landing b. authorised to land if you consider no collision risk exists c. gliding operations in progress d. aerodrome unsafe do not land Q21. Radar equipment may be energised in its normal mode near an aircraft being refueled if the sector area scanned by the beam is clear to a distance of : a. 30m from the antenna b. 37m from the antenna c. 120m from the antenna d. 100ft from the antenna E.&O.E. 6

Q22. Flood waters have isolated a homestead and you have been hired to drop food parcels there. Because of the accuracy required, you can legally drop the parcels from an altitude no lower than : a. 1500ft AGL b. 200ft AGL c. 100ft AGL d. 200ft AMSL Q23. Flight through a Restricted Area is normally only permitted outside the hours of activation of the area. However, under certain conditions, you may fly through these areas when active. Which of the following situations would allow you to fly within a Restricted Area during active hours? a. an ATC clearance requires you to fly within the Restricted Area b. you are on a flight and by flying through the Restricted Area, you save considerably on fuel c. you are running late for your SARTIME and by flying through the Restricted Area you save valuable time and avoid a possible SAR alert being initiated on your aircraft d. you are on a Mercy Flight and therefore permission from the controlling authority is not required Q24. Which of the following flights require a list containing aircraft registration, names of passengers, ETD, places of embarkation and destination to be left at the departure aerodrome? a. a private flight carrying two passengers from Rockhampton to Bundaberg b. only those charter flights carrying passengers outside Australia c. any charter flight carrying passengers d. only on regular public transport flights Q25. What precautions must be taken prior to starting an aircraft? a. the engine must not be started within 8m of another stationary aircraft b. the engine must not be started within 15m of another stationary aircraft c. the engine must not be started within 5m of another stationary aircraft d. the engine must not be started within 9m of another stationary aircraft E.&O.E. 7

Q26. The holder of a commercial pilot licence who has turned 60 years of age may act as the pilot in command of a charter carrying passengers provided : a. another pilot at least the holder of a private pilot licence sits in the right hand seat b. another commercial pilot licence holder but not necessarily endorsed on type sits in the right seat c. the aircraft is dual controlled and the commercial pilot licence or higher licenced pilot endorsed on type is in the right seat d. the pilot in the right seat must have an airline pilot licence Q27. The obstacle clear approach and take off gradient at both ends of the runway strip of an ALA used for day operations on a single engine aeroplane (MTOW 1250kg) shall not be steeper than : a. 1:50 b. 1:35 c. 1:30 d. 1:20 Q28. During cruising flight you sight an aeroplane at the same altitude converging from the left. You should : a. turn left to pass behind the other aeroplane b. turn to the right c. change altitude d. maintain altitude and heading but be prepared to take avoiding action if necessary Q29. Aerial spotting for remuneration is classified as : a. a private operation b. an aerial work operation c. a charter operation d. a regular public transport operation E.&O.E. 8

Q30. Smoking is prohibited in an aircraft during : a. flight above 10,000ft in an unpressurised aircraft b. flight below 10,000ft c. take off and landing d. only during cruise Q31. One requirement relating to the carriage of a domestic animal in a passenger compartment of an aircraft is that : a. the animal is held on the owner s lap b. the animal is secured in a container c. the animal is accompanied by its owner d. the operator of the aircraft must give written permission Q32. One restriction imposed on VFR flights operating at or below 2000ft is that : a. the aircraft shall be navigated by visual reference to ground and water b. flight above cloud is not permitted c. visibility should not be less than 8km d. position reports shall be made every 30 minutes Q33. The pilot in command of an aircraft operating in Class G airspace below 2 000ft by day must apply the following tolerances to ensure the tolerance between the flight plan track and controlled airspace boundary are maintained : a. +/- 1 nm b. +/- 2 nm c. +/- 4 nm d. +/- 5 nm Q34. When may a pilot elect to fly at a height lower than 500ft above the highest obstacle or terrain? a. if uncertain of position b. when flying along a coast line c. due to stress of weather d. at any time when flying within a training area E.&O.E. 9

Q35. You are planning to take off from a non-controlled aerodrome in an aircraft having a MTOW of 1200kg and have just lined up at the beginning of the runway. Another aircraft of the same type has just taken off from the same 1900 metre runway. The earliest you can commence your take off is when the other aircraft is airborne and at least : a. 600m from your proposed take off point b. 500ft above ground level c. crossing the upwind end of the runway d. 1800m from your proposed take off point Q36. It is recommended that a distress message should initially include the following information : a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, followed by the aircraft call sign 3 times b. PAN PAN PAN, followed by the aircraft call sign c. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, followed by the call sign of the station or all stations d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, followed by the aircraft type Q37. To maintain VMC when flying in CTA at 2500ft AMSL the minimum vertical separation from cloud is : a. 500ft for flight below cloud and 1000ft for flight above cloud b. 500ft for flight above or below cloud c. clear of cloud d. 1000ft for flight above or below cloud Q38. Which of the following occurrences should be classified as an accident? a. a passenger slips and fractures her skull whilst boarding an aircraft b. a bird strike resulting in damage to an H.F. aerial c. landing at an airfield other than the planned destination d. propeller damage due to gravel whilst taxiing E.&O.E. 10

Q39. A glider and an aeroplane are approaching head on. Select the correct action each pilot should take to avoid a collision. a. the glider should descend left and the aeroplane should climb straight ahead b. the glider should descend straight ahead and the aeroplane should conduct a climbing turn to the left c. each aircraft should alter heading to the right d. the glider should maintain heading and height and the aeroplane should make a climbing turn to the right Q40. A VFR flight is normally restricted to : a. 10000ft b. below 5000ft c. below FL200 d. FL110 E.&O.E. 11

ANSWER KEY : CLWA3 1. C CAR 2 (7d) CAR 206 2. B CAO 20.16.2 3. B CAR 139 (1) (2) 4. C AIP ENR 1.7-5 5. B CAR 256A 6. C CAO 20.11 (5.1) 7. A CAO 48.1 (1.17) 8. B CAO 20.18 (3.1) (Appendix 1) 9. B CAR 244 CAO 20.2 (5) CAO 20.11 (14.1.1) 10. D AIP ENR 1.1-81 ENR 1.1-84 11. C CAO 20.9 (4.5) 12. B CAO 20.16.3 (3.1) 13. B CAO 48.1 (1.2) (1.5) (1.8) 14. D CAO 29.5 (3) 15. A CAR 2 (7d) CAR 206 16. D AIP ENR 1.12-6 17. A AIP ENR 1.14-2 18. A CAR 166 (2g) 19. B AIP GEN 3.5-7 (4.2) 20. B AIP ENR 1.5-45 21. B CAO 20.9 (6) 22. A CAO 29.5 (7.1) 23. A AIP ENR 1.4-8 24. C CAO 20.16.1 (7) 25. A CAO 20.9 (5.1.4) 26. C CAR 5.110 (1) (2) 27. D CAAP 92-1 (1) 28. D CAR 162 29. B CAR 2 (7d) CAR 206 30. C CAR 255 31. C CAR 256A 32. A CAR 172 (1) and ENR 1.1-32 (19.2.1) 33. A AIP ENR 1.1-37 (19.5) 34. C CAR 157 (4) 35. A AIP ENR 1.1-11 36. A ERSA EMERG-1 37. D AIP ENR 1.2-2 38. A AIP ENR 1.14-1 39. C CAR 162 (2) 40. C CAR 173 (3) E.&O.E. 12