Page 1 of 8 Gleim Instrument Pilot FAA Knowledge Test Prep 2018 Edition, 1st Printing Updates April 2018 NOTE: Text that should be deleted is displayed with a line through it. New text is shown with a blue background. If you see any additional content on your knowledge test not represented in our materials or this update, please share this information with Gleim so we can continue to provide the most complete knowledge test preparation experience possible. You can submit feedback at www.gleimaviation.com/questions. Thank you in advance for your help! Study Unit 1 Airplane Instruments Page 22, Subunit 1.6, item 5.: This information was moved to Subunit 1.5 as item 3. A typographical error was also corrected. 5 3. Remote indicating compasses (RICs) were developed to compensate for the errors and limitations of the older type of heading indicators. a. The two panel-mounted components of a typical system are the pictorial navigation indicator and the slaving control and compensator unit. b. The slaving control and compensator unit has a push-button that provides a means of selecting either the slaved gyro or free gyro mode. c. This unit also has a slaving meter and two manual heading-drive buttons. d. The slaving meter indicates the difference between the displayed heading and the magnetic heading. 1) A right deflection indicates a clockwise error of the compass card; a left deflection indicates a counterclockwise error. 2) When the aircraft is in a turn and the card rotates, the slaving meter shows a full deflection to one side or the other. 3) When the system is in free gyro mode, the compass card may be adjusted by depressing the appropriate heading-drive button. e. A magnetic slaving transmitter is a separate unit mounted remotely, usually in a wingtip to eliminate the possibility of magnetic interference. 1) It contains the flux valve, which is the direction-sensing device of the system. a) A concentration of lines of magnetic force, after being amplified, becomes a signal relayed to the heading indicator unit, which is also remotely mounted. b) This signal operates a torque motor in the heading indicator unit that processes precesses the gyro unit until it is aligned with the transmitter signal. 2) The magnetic slaving transmitter is connected electrically to the HSI.
Page 2 of 8 Study Unit 5 Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace Page 148, Subunit 5.7, Question 44: This edit updates the source. 44. What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions? A. If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline. B. Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing. C. Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-14 15) DISCUSSION: During climbs and descents in VFR conditions, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right to permit continual scanning of surrounding airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. You are required to maintain, not remain to the right of, the centerline while operating on a federal airway, except when maneuvering to avoid other traffic in VFR conditions. Answer (B) is incorrect. You are not required to advise ATC that you are in visual conditions, but you are required to maintain, not remain to the right of, the centerline while operating on a federal airway, except when maneuvering to avoid other traffic in VFR conditions. Page 153, Subunit 5.10, Questions 63-67: These edits update the sources. 63. Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.) A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. B. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate. C. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 5-2-4 5) DISCUSSION: An abbreviated IFR departure clearance will include the destination airport. En route altitude will be stated in the clearance, and the pilot will be advised to expect an assigned or filed altitude within a given time or at a certain point after departure. Any DP (instrument departure procedure) will also be specified by ATC stating the DP name, the current number, and the DP transition name. Answer (A) is incorrect. The fixes are already included in the flight plan and do not need to be repeated in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance. Answer (C) is incorrect. An en route altitude is always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance. 64. Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance? A. DP or transition name and altitude to maintain. B. Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude. C. Altitude to maintain and code to squawk. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 5-2-4 5) DISCUSSION: An abbreviated IFR departure clearance always contains the name of your destination airport or clearance limit; altitude; and, if a DP is to be flown, the DP name, the current number, and the DP transition name. Answer (A) is incorrect. The destination airport or clearance limit is always given in an abbreviated clearance. Answer (C) is incorrect. The destination airport or clearance limit is always given in an abbreviated clearance. 65. An abbreviated departure clearance...cleared AS FILED... will always contain the name A. and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. B. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. C. of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 5-2-4 5) DISCUSSION: An abbreviated IFR departure clearance will include the destination airport. En route altitude will be stated, and the pilot will be advised to expect an assigned or filed altitude by a certain time or at a certain point after departure either separately or as part of a DP. The abbreviated clearance also includes the DP name-numbertransition, if appropriate. Answer (A) is incorrect. A STAR, when filed in a flight plan, is considered a part of the filed route of flight and will not normally be stated in an initial departure clearance. Answer (C) is incorrect. Compulsory reporting points are not given in an abbreviated clearance.
Page 3 of 8 66. When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that A. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time. B. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. C. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time. 67. On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the A. departure control frequency. B. transponder code. C. destination airport and route. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 5-2-5 6) DISCUSSION: If operating from an airport not served by a control tower, the pilot may receive a clearance containing a provision that, if the flight has not departed by a specific time (void time), the clearance is void. In this situation, the pilot who does not depart prior to the void time must advise ATC of his or her intentions as soon as possible, but no later than 30 min. after the void time. Answer (A) is incorrect. ATC will assume a departure unless it hears from the pilot. Answer (C) is incorrect. The airspace is protected until ATC hears from the pilot. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 5-2-4 5) DISCUSSION: An IFR departure clearance will always contain the destination airport and the route of flight. The route of flight will either be given fix-by-fix by the controller or as filed, in which case the route on the IFR flight plan is the assigned route. The statement, Cleared to the Dallas-Love airport as filed, contains the destination airport and the specific route to be taken (the filed route). Answer (A) is incorrect. If the abbreviated clearance contains a DP, the departure control frequency may not be given if the frequency is published in the DP. Answer (B) is incorrect. An abbreviated IFR departure clearance will always contain the destination airport and the route of flight, but not the transponder code. Page 155, Subunit 5.11, Questions 73 and 75: These edits update the sources. 73. During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure A. before entering the clouds. B. when the tower instructs the change. C. upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude. 75. What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude? A. Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level. B. Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet. C. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 5-2-6 7) DISCUSSION: A pilot should not change to the departure control frequency until advised by ATC. Because the pilot maintains continuous contact with assigned ATC frequencies, all frequency changes are at the direction of ATC. Answer (A) is incorrect. The tower will advise the pilot when to contact departure control, and such contact is not based on whether the aircraft has penetrated the clouds. Answer (C) is incorrect. The tower will advise the pilot when to contact departure control, which may or may not be upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-9 10) DISCUSSION: When ATC clearances are given to descend or climb to a certain altitude, the pilot should use the optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 ft. above or below the assigned altitude and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until reaching the assigned altitude. Also, on airways, you should climb and descend on the centerline of the airway with no intermediate level-offs. Answer (A) is incorrect. The pilot is not required to report passing each 1,000 ft. of altitude. Answer (B) is incorrect. You should normally use a cruise climb rather than a maximum angle of climb.
Page 4 of 8 Page 156, Subunit 5.11, Question 78: This edit updates the source. 78. When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between A. 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute. B. 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. C. 1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-9 10) DISCUSSION: When ATC clearances are given to descend or climb to a certain altitude, the pilot should use the optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 ft. above or below the assigned altitude and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until reaching the assigned altitude. Also, on airways, one should climb and descend on the centerline of the airway with no intermediate level-offs. Answer (A) is incorrect. Within 1,000 ft. of the assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to climb/descend at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm, not 1,000 fpm. Answer (C) is incorrect. Within 1,000 ft. of the assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to climb/descend at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm, not 1,000 and 2,000 fpm. Page 157, Subunit 5.11, Question 84: This edit updates the source. 84. What is the pilot in command s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.) A. Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC. B. Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC. C. Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-11 12) DISCUSSION: ATC will express all speed adjustments in terms of knots based on indicated airspeed (IAS) in 10-kt. increments below FL 240. When complying with an ATC speed adjustment to reduce to 160, you should reduce IAS to 160 kt. and maintain that speed within 10 kt. Answer (A) is incorrect. ATC speed restrictions are based on indicated airspeed (IAS), not true airspeed (TAS). Answer (B) is incorrect. Airspeeds are given in knots, not MPH. Study Unit 6 Holding and Instrument Approaches Page 199, Subunit 6.1, Questions 1-2: These edits update the sources. 1. What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach? A. You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions. B. You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions. C. You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 5-4-22 23) DISCUSSION: ATC may authorize airplanes to conduct visual approaches to an airport or to follow another airplane when flight to and landing at the airport can be accomplished in VFR weather. You must have the airport or preceding aircraft in sight before the clearance is issued. Answer (A) is incorrect. You can have the airport in sight instead of having the preceding aircraft in sight. Answer (B) is incorrect. You must be able to land in VFR, not IFR, conditions. 2. What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach? A. The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist. B. The pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist. C. Anytime the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 5-4-22 23) DISCUSSION: Contact approaches can be issued only upon pilot request, but visual approaches may be assigned by ATC. Visual approaches require VFR conditions. Contact approaches require 1 SM flight visibility and the ability to remain clear of clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect. ATC may assign visual approaches without pilot request, and ATC cannot issue a contact approach clearance without the pilot s request. Answer (C) is incorrect. ATC cannot issue a contact approach clearance without the pilot s request.
Page 5 of 8 Page 200, Subunit 6.1, Question 7: This edit updates the source. 7. When may you obtain a contact approach? A. ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds. B. ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile. C. ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 5-4-24 25) DISCUSSION: ATC will assign a contact approach only upon pilot request if the pilot is operating clear of clouds, has at least 1 SM flight visibility, and expects to reach the airport and land in those conditions. Answer (A) is incorrect. ATC may assign a visual, not a contact, approach if VFR weather conditions exist. ATC may not assign a contact approach. Answer (B) is incorrect. ATC may not assign a contact approach. The pilot must request one. Page 234, Subunit 6.10, Question 86: This question was updated to match the newly released FAA sample exam. This question was previously renumbered to 85 in a March 2018 update. 85. (Refer to Figure 227 below.) Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The PFAF (Precision Final Approach Fix) intercept altitude is A. 7,080 feet MSL. B. 7,977 feet MSL. C. 8,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-16A Chap 5) DISCUSSION: The glide slope intercept altitude at the PFAF (lightning bolt) is 8,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. The minimum altitude for the nonprecision approaches, excluding the LECET-fix minimum altitude, is 7,080 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The altitude at the FAF LOM is 7,977 feet MSL. Page 242, Subunit 6.10, Question 98: This edit updates the source. This question was previously renumbered to 97 in a March 2018 update. 97. During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required? A. When radar vectors are provided. B. When cleared for the approach. C. None, since it is always mandatory. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 5-4-8 9) DISCUSSION: A course reversal (procedure turn) is not required when radar vectors are being provided. Answer (B) is incorrect. A course reversal may be required when cleared for a full approach. Answer (C) is incorrect. A course reversal is not mandatory when radar vectors are provided. Page 260, Subunit 6.11, Question 129: This edit updates the source. 129. Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request? A. DP s, STAR s, and contact approaches. B. Contact and visual approaches. C. DP s, STAR s, and visual approaches. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 5-4-24 25) DISCUSSION: DPs, STARs, and visual approaches are all routinely assigned by ATC as appropriate. Contact approaches must be requested by the pilot and made in lieu of a standard or special instrument approach. Answer (A) is incorrect. Contact approaches must be requested by the pilot. Answer (B) is incorrect. Contact approaches must be requested by the pilot.
Page 6 of 8 Study Unit 9 Aviation Weather Services Page 324, Subunit 9.2, Question 8: This question was updated to match the newly released FAA sample exam. This question was renumbered to 9 in a March 2018 update. 9. Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA. METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42 A. The wind is variable from 290 to 360. B. Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31. C. Rain ended 42 minutes past the hour, snow began 42 minutes past the hour. Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) DISCUSSION: The contraction RMK follows the altimeter in the body and precedes remarks. RMK RAE42SNB42 means remarks follow, rain ended 42 min. past the hour (RAE42), and snow began (SNB) 42 min. past the hour (SNB42). Answer (A) is incorrect. The remarks section This METAR indicates that rain ended 42 min. past the hour and snow began 42 min. past the hour, not that the wind is variable from 290 to 260, not 290 to 360. Answer (B) is incorrect. The remarks section This METAR indicates that rain ended 42 min. past the hour and snow began 42 min. past the hour, not that there is heavy snow, blowing snow, and fog on Rwy 31 at the airport, not heavy blowing snow and not just on Runway 31. The Runway 31 runway visual range (RVR) is 2,700 ft. Study Unit 10 IFR En Route Pages 344-346, Subunit 10.2, Questions 15-25: These edits update the sources. 15. Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight? A. Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid. B. When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic. C. When the pilot requests it. 16. What altitude may a pilot on an IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance? A. Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above or 1,000 feet below the meteorological condition. B. Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions. C. Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 500 feet above the meteorological condition. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: VFR-on-top is an ATC authorization for an IFR aircraft to operate in VFR conditions at any appropriate VFR altitude. ATC may not authorize VFR-on-top operations unless the pilot requests the clearance to operate in VFR conditions. Answer (A) is incorrect. A pilot would report only a malfunction of navigation equipment, not a loss of any navigational aid, to ATC. Answer (B) is incorrect. Special VFR traffic would be found near an airport in Class B, C, or D airspace or Class E airspace designated for an airport that is currently experiencing IMC. Thus, ATC would not issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: When operating in VMC with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top/maintain VFR conditions, pilots on IFR flight plans are required to 1. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude; 2. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from clouds criteria; and 3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight, i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearances, etc. Answer (A) is incorrect. After receiving a VFR-on-top clearance, the pilot may select any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the minimum IFR altitude in VMC, not only 1,000 ft. above or below the meteorological condition. This may be above, below, between layers, or in areas where there is no meteorological obscuration. Answer (C) is incorrect. After receiving a VFR-on-top clearance, the pilot may select any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the minimum IFR altitude in VMC, not only 500 ft. above the meteorological condition. This may be above, below, between layers, or in areas where there is no meteorological obscuration.
Page 7 of 8 17. Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance? A. VFR only. B. VFR and IFR. C. VFR when in the clear and IFR when in the clouds. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: When operating in VMC with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top/maintain VFR conditions, pilots on IFR flight plans are required to 1. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude; 2. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from clouds criteria; and 3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight, i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearances, etc. Answer (A) is incorrect. An ATC clearance to operate VFR-on-top does not imply cancelation of the IFR flight plan. Answer (C) is incorrect. A VFR-on-top clearance is issued when the pilot is in VMC and must remain in VMC unless the VFR-on-top clearance is canceled. It does not allow a pilot to fly in IMC. 18. Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR? A. To VFR on Top. B. Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top. C. VFR Over-the-Top. 19. When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC? A. Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable. B. Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow. C. When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA. 20. When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan? A. When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions. B. When flying in VFR conditions above clouds. C. When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance. 21. Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited? A. In Class A airspace. B. During off-airways direct flights. C. When flying through Class B airspace. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: Pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel their IFR flight plan or operate VFR-on-top may request an ATC clearance to climb to VFR-on-top. Answer (B) is incorrect. A special VFR clearance is issued only in Class B, C, or D airspace or Class E airspace designated for an airport, and the pilot must remain clear of clouds, not climb through them. Answer (C) is incorrect. It is VFR-on-top, not VFR-over-the-top. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: ATC may assign a VFR-on-top clearance only when the pilot requests such a clearance, and the flight must be conducted in VFR weather conditions. Answer (B) is incorrect. ATC can issue a VFR-on-top clearance only upon a pilot s, not ATC s, request. Answer (C) is incorrect. ATC can issue a VFR-on-top clearance only upon a pilot s request; clearance is not based only on the meteorological conditions. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: VFR-on-top clearances are flown at VFR altitudes, which are even or odd thousand-foot intervals plus 500 feet. This is in contrast to IFR altitudes that are at even or odd thousand-foot intervals. Cardinal altitude means 1,000-foot intervals, e.g., 3,000, 4,000, etc. Answer (A) is incorrect. VFR-on-top is not permitted in Class A airspace, which is from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL 600. Answer (B) is incorrect. A pilot on an IFR flight plan uses VFR altitudes only when assigned a VFR-ontop clearance. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: ATC will not authorize VFR or VFR-ontop operations in Class A airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. VFR-on-top operations during off-airway direct flights are not prohibited. Answer (C) is incorrect. VFR-on-top operations within Class B airspace are permitted.
Page 8 of 8 22. What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-Top clearance? A. At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition. B. At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition. C. Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected. 23. When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained? A. An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown. B. A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC. C. The last IFR altitude assigned by ATC. 24. In which airspace is VFR-on-Top operation prohibited? A. Class B airspace. B. Class E airspace. C. Class A airspace. 25. What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment? A. The same reports that are required for any IFR flight. B. All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes. C. Only the reporting of any unforecast weather. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: When operating in VMC with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top/maintain VFR conditions, pilots on IFR flight plans are required to 1. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude; 2. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from clouds criteria; and 3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight, i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearances, etc. Answer (A) is incorrect. You must be at or above, not a specified distance from, the minimum IFR altitude, and while on a VFR-on-top clearance, you may operate above, below, or between layers of, not only above, the existing meteorological condition. Answer (B) is incorrect. You must be at or above, not a specified distance from, the minimum IFR altitude, and while on a VFR-on-top clearance, you may operate above, below, or between layers of, not only above, the existing meteorological condition. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: When operating in VMC with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top/maintain VFR conditions, pilots on IFR flight plans are required to 1. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude; 2. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from clouds criteria; and 3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight, i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearances, etc. Answer (A) is incorrect. Pilots operating with a VFR-ontop clearance should maintain a VFR, not an IFR, cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown. Answer (C) is incorrect. Pilots operating with a VFR-on-top clearance should maintain a VFR, not an IFR, cruising altitude. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: ATC will not authorize VFR or VFR-ontop operations in Class A airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. VFR-on-top operations are permitted, not prohibited, in Class B airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect. VFR-on-top operations are permitted, not prohibited, in Class E airspace. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 4-4-7 8) DISCUSSION: When on a VFR-on-top clearance, you must comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight, e.g., minimum flight altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC communications, etc. Answer (B) is incorrect. All normal IFR reports are required when operating on a VFR-on-top clearance. You should advise ATC prior to any altitude change to ensure the exchange of accurate traffic information. Answer (C) is incorrect. All IFR reports, not only unforecast weather, must be made while operating on a VFR-on-top clearance.