Valley Fliers 1402 Auburn Way North, #223 Auburn WA 98002

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Valley Fliers 1402 Auburn Way North, #223 Auburn WA 98002 Instructor: Check Out Date: Phase 1: Pre-Flight Name: Certificate Number: Certificate Type: Ratings: Total Flight Time: Last 90 Days: Club check out is in two phases: Phase 1 Pre-flight. Phase 2 Flight. This is an open book check out. The aircraft s documentation will be required to complete the Phase 1 check out. Read the question and the possible answers, then print the letter of the most correct answer on the line next to the question. 1. The maximum take-off weight of N9262H in the normal category is: a. 2200 pounds b. 2300 pounds c. 2250 pounds 2. The empty weight of N9262H is: a. 1480.1 pounds b. 1500 pounds c. 1556.4 pounds 3. The useable fuel capacity of N9262H is: a. 45 gallons total, 40 gallons useable b. 40 gallons total, 39 gallons useable c. 42 gallons total, 38 gallons useable 4. What is the total engine oil capacity and, except for an extended flight, when should oil be replenished? 5. The maximum allowable weight that can be placed in the baggage areas in normal category operations is: 6. The maximum allowable weight of 50 lbs is located in the baggage area 2, how much weight can you put in baggage area 1? 7. The maximum allowable weight that can be placed in the baggage areas in utility category operations is: 8. The first indication of carburetor ice in an aircraft with a normally aspirated engine in cruise flight with a fixed pitch propeller is: 9. The normal leaning procedure in an aircraft without an EGT is to set the engine up for cruise, lean the mixture until engine RPM peaks and begins to fall off, then: a. 6 qts, 4 qts minimum, fill to 6 qts. b. 8 qts, 6 qts minimum, fill to 7 qts. c. 6 qts, 4 qts minimum, fill to 5 qts. a. 120 pounds b. 135 pounds c. 100 pounds a. 100 pounds b. 50 pounds c. 70 pounds a. 50 pounds in area 2, 25 pounds in area 1 b. None, both areas must be empty. c. 70 pounds combined total of areas 1 and 2 a. A gradual decrease in RPM b. A sudden decrease in RPM c. Rough running engine and RPM loss a. Enrich the mixture until RPM drops 50 RPM b. Enrichen slightly back to peak RPM c. Lean the mixture another 25 RPM Updated: 9/8/2006 Page 1 of 6

10. The maximum gross weight for operation in the utility category is: 11. What is the maximum allowable aft CG in the utility category? 12. What is the maximum allowable aft CG in the normal category? a. 1800 pounds b. 2000 pounds c. 2300 pounds a. 47.3 inches aft of datum at all weights b. 40.5 inches aft of datum at all weights c. 45.3 inches aft of datum at all weights a. 47.3 inches aft of datum at all weights b. 40.5 inches aft of datum at all weights c. 45.3 inches aft of datum at all weights 13. The airspeed indicator in N9262H registers in: a. KPH b. MPH c. KTS 14. What is the maximum demonstrated cross wind component of a? 15. The distance to clear a 50 ft. obstacle in a maximum effort, no wind, 2300 lb. gross from a paved runway at sea level with a temperature of 15 C (59 F) and altimeter setting of 29.92 is: 16. If the runway in question 15 was a dry grass strip, the take-off data would have to be adjusted by: 17. What engine setting would produce the closest performance to 75% brake horse power at 5,000 feet on a standard day? 18. What is the recommended tire pressure for the main gear tires? 19. What is the recommended tire pressure for the nose gear tire? 20. What power setting and airspeed is recommended for a cruise climb? a. 15 MPH b. 12 KTS c. 15 KTS a. 1525 feet b. 1340 feet c. 1440 feet a. Increase the total distance by 7% b. Increase both the ground run and total distances by 7% of the total to clear a 50 foot obstacle c. Increasing the ground run by 15% a. 2600 RPM, for 8.3 gallons/hour b. 2400 RPM, for 8.0 gallons/hour c. 2500 RPM, for 7.7 gallons/hour a. 29 psi on 6.00 x 6 tires b. 32 psi on 6.00 x 6 tires c. 50 psi on 6.00 x 6 tires a. 31 psi on 5.00 x 5 tire b. 32 psi on 5.00 x 5 tire c. 50 psi on 5.00 x 5 tire a. Full throttle and 70-85 MPH b. Full throttle and 70-90 KTS c. Full throttle and 60-75 KTS 21. What power setting is recommended for cruise flight? a. 2150-2300 RPM, but no > than 65% b. 2200-2700 RPM, but no > than 75% c. 2450-2750 RPM, but no > than 75% 22. When securing the aircraft, the fuel selector valve should be: a. Turned to the right tank to prevent siphoning b. Remain on Both c. Turned to the fullest tank 23. What is the approved flap range for take-off? a. 0 to 10 degrees b. Flaps not recommended for take-off c. 0 to 20 degrees Updated: 9/8/2006 Page 2 of 6

24. When the Ammeter is broken and not working is a considered airworthy and can be flown? a. Yes, it is not an instrument or equipment required by FAR 91.205 b. Yes, if the battery is less than one year old and fully charged c. No, the equipment list indicates it is required for FAA certification 25. Using the Cessna manual s loading graph and center of gravity moment envelope for N9262H, calculate the CG for the following: Weight Item Weight Moment/1000 Useable Fuel 40 gallons 240 Pilot and Co-Pilot 320 Rear Seats 212 Baggage Area 1 70 Baggage Area 2 Total Weight and Moment 26. Using the Cessna manual s loading graph and center of gravity moment envelope for N9262H, calculate the CG for the following: Weight Useable Fuel 20 gallons Item Weight Moment/1000 Pilot and Co-Pilot 340 Rear Seats Baggage Area 1 Baggage Area 2 Total Weight and Moment 27. Comparing the two weight and balance computations (questions 21 and 22), which configuration fits the utility category? 28. What is the recommended approach speed with flaps down? a. Both b. Question 25 c. Question 26 a. 75 to 85 KTS b. 75 to 80 KTS c. 55 to 65 KTS Updated: 9/8/2006 Page 3 of 6

29. Provide the following airspeeds (IAS): Assume: Most forward CG and Gross Weight V a Design maneuvering speed V no Maximum cruise speed V ne Never exceed speed V y Best rate of climb speed V x Best angle of climb speed V fe Maximum flap extension speed V s1 Power off stall, flaps up V so Power off stall, flaps down 30. What airspeed produces the best glide for an engine out glide from 8,000 feet and how far could you glide in a zero wind condition? 31. What is the stalling speed in a 60 degree bank with full flaps at the most rearward CG? 32. The easiest way to ground handle this aircraft is to use the tow bar. What is the tow bar turning angle limits? 33. Where is the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) located? a. 100 MPH IAS, glide distance 20 SM b. 65 KTS IAS, glide distance 12 SM c. 85 KTS IAS, glide distance 18 SM a. 62 KTS IAS b. 51 KTS IAS c. 45 KTS CAS a. Do not exceed 30 degrees from center b. To the limit where it will turn no further c. Do not exceed 60 degrees from center a. In the baggage compartment, right side b. Behind the baggage compartment c. In the baggage compartment, near door 34. How is the ELT armed in this aircraft? a. A switch on the unit s case b. It is always armed c. A switch on the instrument panel, left side 35. Where is the battery located? a. Behind the baggage compartment b. Behind the engine, on the firewall c. Under the rear seats 36. What is the voltage of the electrical system? a. 14 volt generator, 12 volt battery b. 28 volt alternator, 24 volt battery c. 14 volt alternator, 12 volt battery 37. Does N9262H have a radio master switch? a. No, shut off each radio individually b. Yes, for comm radios only c. Yes, individual switches can be left on Updated: 9/8/2006 Page 4 of 6

38. What engine RPM is used for a magneto check? a. 2000 RPM b. 1700 RPM c. 2300 RPM 39. When will the red low voltage light illuminate? a. When the alternator field current shuts off or low RPM during taxi b. When the battery is depleted c. When the electrical system is overloaded 40. What is the normal engine RPM operating range at sea level? 41. What minimum fuel grades (octane) are authorized for use in N9262H and how many fuel drain locations are there? 42. To act as pilot in command of this aircraft, you must be rechecked in the aircraft: 43. Who is responsible for the aircraft documentation that must be on board the airplane before flight? 44. Who is responsible for cleaning the airplane interior and windows after a flight? 45. Who is responsible for installing the control lock, securing the tie-downs and locking the aircraft s doors and windows? 46. Who can perform any maintenance or modifications on club aircraft? a. 2200-2500 RPM b. 2000-2600 RPM c. 1900-2300 RPM a. AV 80/87 3 drains b. AV100LL 3 drains c. AV 80/87 4 drains a. Every Bi-Annual b. Every year c. If you have not flown a like aircraft in the preceding 90 days or when deemed by the Club a. The maintenance officer b. The pilot in command c. The safety officer a. The next user b. The cleaning crew c. The pilot who just completed the flight a. The maintenance officer b. The person assigned to ramp duty c. The pilot who just completed the flight a. Any Club member on the active list b. Anyone with a pilot s license, except students c. The maintenance officer or his designee 47. Who can instruct in club aircraft? a. Affiliated instructors approved by the board b. Any instructor appointed by an associate c. An instructor hired by the member 48. In order to complete a check out in the, a club member must complete: a. A club authorized check out b. A check out from an FBO c. A check out form signed by any instructor Updated: 9/8/2006 Page 5 of 6

Valley Fliers 1402 Auburn Way North, #223 Auburn WA 98002 Name: Certificate Number: Phase 2: Flight Instructor: Certificate Type: Ratings: Check Out Date: Total Flight Time: Last 90 Days: Club check out is in two phases: Phase 1 Pre-flight. Phase 2 Flight. The Phase 1 check out should be completed and discussed prior to the Phase 2 check out. Flight Review I. Pre-Flight Inspection II. Check List and Pre-Start Procedures III. Starting Engine IV. Normal Departure Operations a. Taxing b. Pre Take-off Checks c. Normal Take-off d. Climb appropriate power settings e. Cruise appropriate power settings V. Air Work a. Steep Turns b. Flight at Minimum Controllable Airspeed c. Stall Recognition and Recovery d. Recovery from Unusual Attitudes by reference to instruments e. Simulated Emergency Descent VI. Normal Arrival Operations a. Descent and check list procedures b. Normal landings VII. Pattern Work a. Cross wind take-off and landing b. Short field take-off and landing c. Soft field take-off and landing d. Go arounds e. Zero Flap landing Instructor initials indicating satisfactory performance refer to applicable PTS c. d. e. c. d. e. c. d. e. VIII. IX. After Landing and Post-Flight Procedures Remarks: Overall Completion of Transition or Original Aircraft Check Out Phase 1 Ground Instruction Phase 2 Flight Review Hours of ground instruction completed: Hours of flight instruction completed: Instructors signature: Certificate number: Expiration date: Instructors signature: Certificate number: Expiration date: I have received training to operate a Cessna aircraft and completed the ground and flight training noted above. Pilots signature: Date: Updated: 9/8/2006 Page 6 of 6