Page 1 of 11 Gleim Private Pilot FAA Knowledge Test 2017 Edition, 1st Printing Updates April 2017 NOTE: Text that should be deleted is displayed with a line through it. New text is shown with a blue background. If you see any additional content on your knowledge test not represented in our materials or this update, please share this information with Gleim so we can continue to provide the most complete knowledge test preparation experience possible. You can submit feedback at www.gleim.com/aviationquestions. Thank you in advance for your help! Study Unit 1 Airplanes and Aerodynamics Page 27, Subunit 1.3, Question 15: The question The term angle of attack is defined as the angle was removed because it was redundant. Subsequent questions were renumbered accordingly. Page 28, Subunit 1.3, Question 16: The question Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the was removed because it applies to rotorcraft. Subsequent questions were renumbered accordingly. Page 33, Subunit 1.8, Question 38: This edit clarifies the answer explanation. 38. What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight? A. Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase. B. Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the aircraft will climb. C. The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause a turn to the right. Answer (A) is correct. (PHAK Chap 5) DISCUSSION: When advancing the throttle, the airspeed will increase; therefore, groundspeed will also increase. The aircraft will climb due to an increase in downwash over the horizontal stabilizer as power is applied and the lift created by the airspeed increase lift caused by excess thrust and additional airflow over the wing. Answer (B) is incorrect. When advancing the throttle, the airspeed and groundspeed increase. Answer (C) is incorrect. When power is applied to a single-engine aircraft, it will tend to turn to the left due to the left-turning tendency created by the engine and propeller. Study Unit 2 Airplane Instruments, Engines, and Systems Page 43, Subunit 2.13, item 3.: This edit clarifies when carburetor ice is likely to form. 3. Carburetor ice is likely to form when outside air temperature is between 20 F and 70 F and there is visible moisture or high humidity.
Page 2 of 11 Study Unit 3 Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace Page 80, Subunit 3.1, Question 1: These edits update the question to match an image update by the FAA. 1. (Refer to Figure 48 on page 81 and Legend 3 on page 82.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? A. Position E on Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft available for landing. B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-3) DISCUSSION: In Fig. 48, RWY 12 takeoffs may be started at position A, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. In this example, a displaced threshold exists at the beginning of RWY 12. The threshold is depicted on the airport diagram as three oblong circles ( ) going across and near the end of the runway, designating the beginning portion of a runway usable for landing. The paved area behind the displaced runway threshold is available for taxiing, the landing rollout, and takeoff Position A indicates a displaced threshold by the arrows located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. Arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. A displaced threshold is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. These markings are white in the real environment. Answer (A) is incorrect. Arresting cables are depicted as a black zig-zag line across the runway. On an active runway, they are indicated by black lines extending out from the sides of the runway. Unidirectional (single) or bidirectional (two) arrows along the side of the runway point in the direction of the arresting gear operation painted across the runway at positions of the arresting cables. Position E is grey, indicating an overrun area Position E contains blast pad or stopway markings as indicated by the chevrons. These markings are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow in the real environment. Answer (C) is incorrect. Only the landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B. The takeoff may be started in the paved area behind the displaced runway threshold (i.e., position A). Page 87, Subunit 3.3, Question 23: This edit updates the source. 23. An airport s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates A. there are obstructions on the airport. B. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. C. the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-1-8 10) DISCUSSION: Operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours often indicates that weather at the airport located in controlled airspace (e.g., Class D airspace) is below basic VFR weather minimums, i.e., less than 1,000 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility. Note that there is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation of an airport s rotating beacon. Answer (A) is incorrect. The obstructions near or on airports are usually listed in NOTAMs or the Chart Supplement as appropriate to their hazard. Answer (C) is incorrect. There is no visual signal of tower operation/non-operation.
Page 3 of 11 Page 88, Subunit 3.3, Question 25: This edit updates the source. 25. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by A. white directional lights. B. blue omnidirectional lights. C. alternate red and green lights. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-1-9 11) DISCUSSION: Taxiway edge lights are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions. These lights are identified at night by blue omnidirectional lights. Answer (A) is incorrect. White lights are standard runway edge lights. Answer (C) is incorrect. Alternate red and green lights are a light gun signal, which means exercise extreme caution to all aircraft. Page 88, Subunit 3.3, Question 26: This edit updates the source. 26. To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it A. one time within 4 seconds. B. three times within 3 seconds. C. five times within 5 seconds. Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 2-1-7 9) DISCUSSION: To turn on and set the runway lights on medium intensity, the recommended procedure is to key the mic seven times; this ensures that all the lights are on and at high intensity. Next, key the mic five times to get the mediumintensity setting. Lighting systems are activated by keying the mic within a 5-second interval. Answer (A) is incorrect. Keying only one time will not adjust or turn the lights on at all. Answer (B) is incorrect. Three additional microphone clicks will give the low-intensity setting. Study Unit 4 Federal Aviation Regulations Page 119, Subunit 4.9, Section 91.117: These edits clarify the outline. 91.117 Aircraft Speed 1. The speed limit is 250 kt. (288 MPH) when flying below 10,000 ft. MSL and in Class B airspace. 2. The speed limit within Class B airspace is 250 kt. (288 MPH). a. When flying under Class B airspace or in VFR corridors through Class B airspace, the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH). Page 157, Subunit 4.10, Question 136: This edit improves the answer explanation. 136. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.155) DISCUSSION: Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Of these, only in Class E airspace is the minimum flight visibility 5 SM for VFR flights at or above 10,000 ft. MSL. Note: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 ft. MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 ft. MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the visibility in Class G, not Class E, airspace when more than 1,200 ft. AGL but less, not more, than 10,000 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the minimum visibility in Class E airspace when below, not at or above, 10,000 ft. MSL.
Page 4 of 11 Study Unit 5 Airplane Performance and Weight and Balance Page 192, Subunit 5.2, Question 16: These edits correct the measurements. 16. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 193.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet? A. 1,200-foot increase. B. 1,400-foot increase. C. 1,650-foot increase. Answer (C) is correct the best answer. (PHAK Chap 11) DISCUSSION: Increasing the temperature from 25 F to 50 F, given a pressure altitude of 5,000 ft., requires you to find the 5,000-ft. line on the density altitude chart at the 25 F level. At this point, the density altitude is approximately 3,850 3,800 ft. Then move up the 5,000-ft. line to 50 F, where the density altitude is approximately 5,500 5,400 ft. There is about a 1,650 1,600-ft. increase (5,500 5,400 ft. 3,850 3,800 ft.). As temperature increases, so does density altitude; i.e., the atmosphere becomes thinner (less dense). Because 1,600-foot increase is not an answer choice, 1,650-foot increase would be the best answer. Answer (A) is incorrect. An 1,200-ft. increase would result from a temperature increase of 18 F (not 25 F). Answer (B) is incorrect. An 1,400-ft. increase would result from a temperature increase of 20 F (not 25 F). Study Unit 7 Aviation Weather Page 236, Subunit 7.4, items 1.b.2) and 3.: New material was added to increase students knowledge base. 1. Thunderstorms have three phases in their life cycle: [... ] a. Cumulus: The building stage of a thunderstorm when there are continuous updrafts. b. Mature: The time of greatest intensity when there are both updrafts and downdrafts (causing severe wind shear and turbulence). 1) The commencing of rain on the Earth s surface indicates the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm. 2) The precipitation descends through the cloud and drags the adjacent air downward, creating a strong downdraft. a) The downdraft spreads out along the surface, well in advance of the parent thunderstorm cell, as a mass of cool, gusty air. 3. Thunderstorms produce wind shear turbulence, a hazardous and invisible phenomenon particularly for airplanes landing and taking off. a. Adverse winds are always found within thunderstorms and often many miles away from the precipitation area. 1) Crosswinds, gusts, and variable winds/sudden wind shifts can lead to a crash during takeoffs, approaches, and landings. b. Hazardous wind shear near the ground can also be present during periods of strong temperature inversion.
Page 5 of 11 Page 242, Subunit 7.4, Question 19: This question was updated to match the newly released FAA sample exam. 19. The destination airport has one runway, 8-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left-hand pattern to runway 8. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to A. fly the pattern to runway 8 since the storm is too far away to affect the wind at the airport depart expecting the thunderstorm to dissipate prior to arrival, then land on runway 8. B. fly the normal pattern to runway 8 since the storm is west and moving north and any unexpected wind will be from the east or southeast toward the storm delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated. C. fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly. Answer (C B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 12) DISCUSSION: Flying in, near, or under thunderstorms can subject an aircraft to rain, hail, lightning, and violent turbulence. It is recommended that pilots avoid severe thunderstorms by 20 NM. In this case, the storm is to the west of the airport and reaching the mature stage. The mature stage is characterized by both strong updrafts and downdrafts. The pilot of this aircraft could expect the potential of a strong wind from the west, making Runway 26 the best option. Runway 26 also keeps the aircraft on the eastern side of the airport away from the storm to the west During the mature stage of a thunderstorm, precipitation descends through the cloud and drags the adjacent air downward, creating a strong downdraft. The downdraft spreads out along the surface, well in advance of the parent thunderstorm cell, as a mass of cool, gusty air. Adverse winds always are found within thunderstorms and often many miles from the precipitation area. Crosswinds, gusts, and variable winds (i.e., sudden wind shifts) can lead to a crash during takeoffs, approaches, and landings. Therefore, the best decision would be to delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated. Answer (A) is incorrect. Flying a left pattern for Runway 8 would put the aircraft closer to or even under the storm Adverse winds always are found within thunderstorms and often many miles from the precipitation area. Crosswinds, gusts, and variable winds (i.e., sudden wind shifts) can lead to a crash during takeoffs, approaches, and landings. The best decision would be to delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated, not depart. Answer (B C) is incorrect. Flying a left pattern for Runway 8 would put the aircraft closer to or even under the storm. The pilot can expect the winds to be from the west, not the east. Westerly winds would favor Runway 26 Adverse winds always are found within thunderstorms and often many miles from the precipitation area. Crosswinds, gusts, and variable winds (i.e., sudden wind shifts) can lead to a crash during takeoffs, approaches, and landings. The best decision would be to deviate to an alternate airport, not fly an approach into the airport. Study Unit 8 Aviation Weather Services Page 264, Subunit 8.3, Question 21: These edits clarify the answer explanations. 21. (Refer to Figure 14 below.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is A. moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet. B. moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. C. light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet. Answer (C) is correct. (AWS Sect 3) DISCUSSION: Refer to the PIREP (identified by the letters UA) in Fig. 14. The turbulence is reported in the section identified by the letters TB. In the PIREP the turbulence is reported as light from 5,500 ft. to 7,200 ft. (TB LGT 055-072). Answer (A) is incorrect. T Light, not moderate, turbulence is reported from 5,500 to 7,200 ft. MSL, not only at 5,500 ft. and 7,200 feet. Answer (B) is incorrect. Rime ice (not turbulence) is reported as light to moderate from 7,200 to 8,900 ft. MSL (not Turbulence is reported as light, not moderate, from 5,500 to 7,200 ft. MSL).
Page 6 of 11 Study Unit 9 Navigation: Charts and Publications Page 282, Subunit 9.2, item 6.b.1): This edit corrects a cross reference. b. The vertical limits are indicated on the chart within each circle and are expressed in hundreds of feet MSL. The top limit is shown above a straight line and the bottom limit beneath the line. 1) EXAMPLE: See Figure 23 on the previous next page. At the bottom right (area 3) is the Savannah Class C airspace. Page 284, Subunit 9.2, item 9.c.: These edits correct the outline and increase students knowledge base about military operations areas. c. Military operations areas (MOAs) denote areas of military training activities. 1) Pilots should contact any FSS within 100 NM to determine the MOA hours of operation. 2) If it is active, the pilot should contact the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA for traffic advisories because of high-density military training. 3) When operating in an MOA, exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted. 4) Examples of activities conducted in MOAs include, but are not limited to, air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low-altitude tactics. Page 326, Subunit 9.2, Question 38: This edit clarifies the answer explanation. 38. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 327.) (Refer to area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 3-4-5) DISCUSSION: Military Operations Areas (MOAs), such as Devils Lake East in Fig. 26 consist of defined lateral and vertical limits that are designated for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic. Most training activities necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers, i.e., air combat tactics, aerobatics, and formation training. Therefore, the likelihood of a collision is increased inside an MOA. VFR traffic is permitted, but extra vigilance should be exercised in seeing and avoiding military aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles, are characteristic of restricted areas, not MOAs. Answer (C) is incorrect. A high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity is characteristic of alert areas, not MOAs.
Page 7 of 11 Page 328, Subunit 9.2, Question 41: These edits improve the answer explanation. 41. (Refer to Figure 26 on page 329.) (Refer to area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport. A. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C. Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL. Answer (A) is correct. (ACL) DISCUSSION: Sprague Airport is the private airport located between areas 3 and 4 on Fig. 26. In the lower lefthand corner of the figure, there is a portion of a blue shaded ring. According to the chart legend, this indicates that Class E airspace begins at 1,200 ft. AGL within this ring Due west of area 4, find the shaded blue markings that indicate Class E airspace with the floor 1,200 feet above the surface that abuts Class G airspace. The inside of the blue shaded area indicates that the regulations do not apply. The blue shading gradating outward indicates the area of airspace in which regulations do apply. Therefore, the airspace over Sprague Airport is Class G airspace would extend from the surface up to 1,200 ft. AGL, followed by then Class E airspace from 1,200 feet up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. The Class G airspace above Sprague Airport ends at 1,200 ft. AGL (the beginning of Class E airspace), not 18,000 ft. MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect. Class G airspace above Sprague Airport extends to 1,200 ft. AGL, indicated by the shaded blue line in the bottom left corner of the chart excerpt. Class G airspace up to 700 ft. AGL (not MSL) would be indicated by magenta shading surrounding Sprague Airport. Additionally, Class E airspace above Sprague Airport extends to 18,000 ft. MSL, not 14,500 ft. MSL. Page 334, Subunit 9.2, Question 48: These edits clarify the airports and improve the answer explanations. 48. (Refer to Figure 70 on page 335.) When are twoway radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. AGL MSL? When entering A. the Class B airspace. B. the Livermore Airport Class D airspace. C. both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace. Answer (B) is correct. (ACL) DISCUSSION: Area 4 is in the upper left hand-corner, and area 5 is in the center of the right-hand side of Fig. 70. A flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) to Livermore Airport (LVK) will pass beneath the sections of Class B airspace extending upward from 4,000 ft. MSL and 6,000 ft. MSL, as indicated by the 100 above the 40 (separated by a line) and the 100 above the 60 (separated by a line), respectively. (Note that the cruising altitude is given as 3,500 ft. AGL, not MSL, and that the terrain elevation along the route of flight appears to be 1,000 ft. MSL or less.) Livermore Airport is encircled by blue dashed lines, indicating Class D airspace extending upward from the surface to a specified altitude (here 2,900 ft. MSL). Two-way radio communications are required when operating within must be established prior to entry and thereafter maintained while in the Class D airspace. Answer (A) is incorrect. The flight will pass beneath the Class B airspace, and two-way radio communications are required when operating within must be established prior to entry and thereafter maintained while in Class D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect. The flight will pass beneath the Class B airspace.
Page 8 of 11 Page 338, Subunit 9.2, Question 52: This edit improves the answer choice. 52. (Refer to Figure 74 on page 339.) (Refer to area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. B. 8,000 10,000 feet MSL. C. 2,100 feet AGL. Answer (A) is correct. (ACL) DISCUSSION: The Class C airspace at OAK (area 6) is shown in solid magenta lines. The surface area over the airport indicates the Class C airspace extends from the surface (SFC) upward to T, which means the ceiling ends at the base of the San Francisco Class B airspace. The base of the Class B airspace changes over OAK. To the left of OAK the base is 2,100 ft. MSL and to the right of OAK the base is 3,000 ft. MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the ceiling of the Class B, not the Class C, airspace over OAK. Answer (C) is incorrect. This is the approximate ceiling of the Class C airspace on the west side of OAK, but the ceiling on the east side is 3,000 ft. MSL. Page 350, Subunit 9.4, Question 65: This edit corrects the answer explanation. 65. (Refer to Figure 21 on page 351.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1? A. 117.1 MHz. B. 118.0 MHz. C. 122.2 MHz. Answer (A) is correct. (ACL) DISCUSSION: On Fig. 21, 1 is on the upper left and the Minot VORTAC information box is 1 in. below 1. Availability of Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) will be indicated by a circle which contains an H, found in the upper right corner of a navigation frequency box. Note that the Minot VORTAC information box has such a symbol. Accordingly, a HIWAS can be obtained on the VOR frequency of 117.1. Notice the 1 before 17.1 is truncated by the excerpt. VOR frequencies all begin with a 1, so a 1 can be inferred. Answer (B) is incorrect. Ch 118 in the Minot VORTAC information box refers to the TACAN channel (the military equivalent of VOR/DME). Answer (C) is incorrect. The universal frequency for Flight Service is 122.2 MHz. Page 364, Subunit 9.6, Question 83: This edit corrects the radials in the answer explanation. 83. (Refer to Figure 52 on page 365.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with A. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. B. Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. C. Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz. Answer (A) is correct. (Chart Supplement) DISCUSSION: Fig. 52 contains the Chart Supplement excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Airspace and note that Lincoln Municipal is located in Class C airspace. The Class C airspace is in effect from 0530-0000 local time (1130-0600Z). You should contact approach control (app con) during that time before entering. Move up two lines to App/Dep Con and note that aircraft arriving from the west of Lincoln (i.e., 170 180 349 359 ) at noon should initially contact Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0. Answer (B) is incorrect. The frequencies shown in the communications section for App/Dep Con do not include 128.75 MHz. Answer (C) is incorrect. When approaching Lincoln Municipal at noon, your initial contact should be with approach control, not the tower.
Page 9 of 11 Page 368, Subunit 9.6, Question 89: This edit clarifies the runway. 89. (Refer to Figure 80 below, and Figure 81 on page 369.) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38 42.25' W107 38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25? A. Right hand traffic pattern. B. Left hand traffic pattern. C. It does not matter because it is an uncontrolled airport. Answer (A) is correct. (Chart Supplement) DISCUSSION: The traffic pattern for runway 25 is a righthand pattern. It is noted on the sectional chart excerpt (Fig. 80). Under the airport information, near Crawford Airport, the third line displays the letters RP 25. On the Chart Supplement excerpt in Fig. 81, the section titled RWY 25 has Rgt tfc (right traffic) written to give pilots the pattern direction of the west runway. Answer (B) is incorrect. It is a left-hand traffic pattern for the east runway (RWY 07) Runway 7, not for Runway 25. Answer (C) is incorrect. Standard traffic patterns are left turns, unless otherwise noted. If there is nothing that states which direction the pattern is, it is left patterns. Page 370, Subunit 9.6, Question 90: These edits improve the question. 90. (Refer to Figure 63 below.) According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport? A. 1400 0900-0600 0100 hr. local time. B. 1300-0500 hr. local time. C. 0900 0800-0100 0000 hr. local time. Answer (C) is correct. (Chart Supplement) DISCUSSION: In the Airport Remarks of the Toledo Express (TOL) section of the Chart Supplement, you will see that fuel and services are available from 1300-0500Z. The symbol specifies that the location observes during daylight savings time and, the services will be available 1 hour earlier than shown. During standard time, 5 hours are substracted from Zulu time. During daylight savings time is in effect from 0200 hr. local time the second Sunday in March to 0200 hr. local time the first Sunday in November. September is during daylight savings time, 4 hours are subtracted from 1200-0400 (1 hour is already subtracted due to the symbol). Answer (A) is incorrect. It is an hour ahead instead of an hour behind for daylight savings time This answer subtracted 4 hours from 1300-0500Z and neglected to consider the 1 additional earlier hour. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the time of availability answer is when services are available expressed as Zulu during standard time. The answers are all given in local time, and the question asks about fuel and services in September, which is during daylight saving time. Study Unit 10 Navigation Systems Page 386, Subunit 10.2, Question 8: These edits update the question to match an image update by the FAA. 8. (Refer to Figure 28 below.) (Refer to illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft s position relative to the station? A. North. B. East. C. South. Answer (C) is correct the best answer. (PHAK Chap 16) DISCUSSION: The OBS is set to 030. If and the needle were is centered with a TO indication. Therefore, the airplane would be aircraft is on the 210 radial and south (southwest) of the station. The CDI is centered so you are on course. Thus, you are south of the VORTAC. By process of elimination, we know the aircraft is neither north nor east of the station, and therefore south is the best answer. Answer (A) is incorrect. To be north would require a right CDI deflection and a A FROM indication is required to place the aircraft north (northeast) of the station. Answer (B) is incorrect. To be east would require a left CDI deflection and a A FROM indication is required to place the aircraft east (northeast) of the station.
Page 386, Subunit 10.2, Question 9: These edits update the question to match an image update by the FAA. This question was previously edited in a November 2016 update. Page 10 of 11 9. (Refer to Figure 28 above, and Figure 24 on page 387.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3 in Figure 24) and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5 in Figure 24). Which VOR indication is correct? A. 1 B. 8 C. 7 Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 16) DISCUSSION: The town of Sulphur Springs (southsouthwest of area 5) is on the 120 radial of Bonham VORTAC. Illustration 7 in Fig. 28 shows the VOR receiver tuned to the 030 course (210 radial), which is perpendicular to (90 away from) the 120 radial. This places the aircraft in the zone of ambiguity, which results in neither a TO nor a FROM indication. and an unstable The CDI needle is, which can be deflected left or right, meaning the aircraft is positioned 90 to the right of the selected radial. Answer (A) is incorrect. With indication 1, the aircraft would have to be north of Sulphur Springs. In addition, the VOR shows a TO indication, indicating the aircraft is not in the zone of ambiguity. Answer (B) is incorrect. It shows the aircraft on the 030 radial, which is well to the north of Sulphur Springs. Page 391, Subunit 10.3, Question 15: This edit updates the source. 15. How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution? A. 5 B. 6 C. 4 Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 1-1-19 17) DISCUSSION: GPS satellites broadcast radio signals that are decoded by a receiver in order to triangulate a threedimensional position by calculating distances based on the amount of time it takes the radio signals to reach the receiver. At least four GPS satellites are required to yield a threedimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution. Answer (A) is incorrect. Four, not five, satellites are required for a three-dimensional position and time solution. Answer (B) is incorrect. Four, not six, satellites are required for a three-dimensional position and time solution. Page 391, Subunit 10.3, Question 16: This edit updates the source. 16. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight, A. the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information. B. the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. C. GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 1-1-18 17, PHAK Chap 16) DISCUSSION: Always check to see if the unit has RAIM capability. If no RAIM capability exists, be suspicious of a GPS displayed position when any disagreement exists with the position derived from other radio navigation systems, pilotage, or dead reckoning. If RAIM is lost during flight, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. Answer (A) is incorrect. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. Answer (C) is incorrect. With three satellites, you narrow the possible location down to one of two points, meaning that you could be at only one of those points. Four satellites are required for navigation. At least one satellite in addition to those required for navigation must be in view for the receiver to perform the RAIM function. Thus, RAIM needs a minimum of five satellites in view, or four satellites and a barometric altimeter (baro-aiding), to detect an integrity anomaly.
Page 11 of 11 Study Unit 11 Cross-Country Flight Planning Page 402, Subunit 11.1, Question 1: This edit corrects wording in the answer explanation. 1. (Refer to Figure 51A on page 403.) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in item 15, Level, of the flight plan? A. Initial cruising altitude. B. Highest cruising altitude. C. Lowest cruising altitude. Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 5-1-9) DISCUSSION: Use only your initial requested altitude on your VFR flight plan to assist briefers in providing weather and wind information If more than one cruising altitude is intended, enter the planned cruising level for the first (initial) portion of the route to be flown. Answer (B) is incorrect. The initial, not highest, altitude should be filed on your VFR flight plan. Answer (C) is incorrect. The initial, not lowest, altitude should be filed on your VFR flight plan. Page 402, Subunit 11.1, Question 2: These edits improve wording in the question. 2. (Refer to Figure 51A on page 403.) What information should be entered in item 15, Level, for a VFR day flight? A. The altitude assigned by the FSS Initial cruising altitude. B. The initial altitude assigned by ATC Highest cruising altitude. C. The appropriate VFR Lowest cruising altitude. Answer (C A) is correct. (AIM Para 5-1-9) DISCUSSION: Item 15, Level, should contain the appropriate VFR altitude so the weather briefer can provide you with a more accurate weather advisory If more than one cruising altitude is intended for a VFR day flight, enter the planned cruising level for the first (initial) portion of the route to be flown. Answer (A B) is incorrect. FSS does not assign altitudes The initial, not highest, altitude should be filed on your VFR flight plan. Answer (B C) is incorrect. You will have not yet been assigned an altitude by ATC The initial, not lowest, altitude should be filed on your VFR flight plan. Page 410, Subunit 11.5, Question 24: These edits improve the answer explanation. 24. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 411.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2). A. 141. B. 321. C. 331. Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 16) DISCUSSION: You are to find the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (lower right corner) to Hampton Roads Airport (above 2 on Fig. 20). True course is the degrees clockwise from true north. Determine the true course by placing the straight edge of your plotter along the given route with the grommet at the intersection of your route and a meridian (the north/south line with crosslines). Here, TC is 320. To convert this to a magnetic course, add the 11 westerly variation (indicated by the slanted dashed magenta line across the upper right of the sectional that parallels the coastline north/south), and find the magnetic course of 331. Remember to subtract easterly variation and add westerly variation. Answer (A) is incorrect. This is the approximate true, not magnetic, course for a flight from Hampton Roads Airport to First Flight Airport, not for a flight from First Flight to Hampton Roads. Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the approximate true, not magnetic, course.