Gestão de Tráfego Aéreo 2015/2016 Exam 2016.01.04 Name Student ID Number I (5.5/20, 0.5 each) What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? [ ] Modern radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace [ ] Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to territorial airspace [ ] Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace [x] Facilities for SAR (Search and Rescue) operations to be undertaken in its airspace As per ICAO Convention on International Aviation (Doc 7300) in the case of amendments to International Standards, any State which does not make the appropriate amendments to its own regulations or practices shall give notice to [ ] the ICAO Council within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment [ ] the ICAO Assembly within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment [x] the ICAO Council within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment [ ] the ICAO Assembly within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS? [ ] the Contracting States [ ] the ICAO Assembly [x] the ICAO Air Navigation Commission [ ] the ICAO Council Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)? [x] Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation [ ] Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS) [ ] ICAO Technical Manuals [ ] Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS) What is a danger area? [ ] A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded [ ] An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification [ ] An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited [x] An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than [ ] 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft [ ] 300 m above the highest obstacle [x] 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft [ ] 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
In class D airspace the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight above FL 100 is: [ ] 1500 m [ ] 5 km [x] 8 km [ ] 1500 ft The Transition Level: [ ] is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command [ ] shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established [x shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude [ ] is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP A portion of airspace above FL290 where suitably equipped aircraft are allowed to maintain 1000 ft vertical separation is called [ ] High-level flight zone [ ] Upper Control airspace [x] RVSM airspace [ ] Upper control area Which of the following statements are false? [ ] A IFR flight can also be done in VMC [x] A VFR flight can be done in IMC and VMC [ ] A IFR flight can be done in uncontrolled airspace [x] A VFR flight can not be done in controlled airspace What is the meaning of a readback in voice radio communications? [ ] the phrase readback is correct [ ] a confirmation word, such as Roger or Copy [ ] the instruction is repeated by the sender [ ] the instruction received is repeated word by word [x] the instruction received is repeated in the receiver s own words
II (5/20 0.5 each) Answer, or fill as necessary, the following questions related to the annexed chart EFHK AD 2.12 for Helsinki aerodrome * Identify the type of this chart: 1. Enroute 2. SID 3. STAR 4. Approach 5. Obstacle * which navigation equipment is required for this procedure? 1. RNAV VOR/DME. 2. RNAV GNSS only 3. VOR/DME 4. RNAV GNSS or DME/DME * operational approval is required according to which PBN navigation specification? 1. RNAV 1 2. RNP 1 3. RNP APCH AR 4. RNP APCH * Which codes should be filed in the flight plan item 10 and item 18 to identify the PBN NAV spec approval for this procedure? item 10a D (DME), G (GNSS), R (PBN requires item 18) item 18 -PBN/D1 (RNAV1) * What are the navigation specification accuracy requirements? the lateral total system error must be within ± 1 NM for at least 95 % per cent of the total flight time. * When needed to generate a DME/DME position, as a minimum, DME signal can only be used if the aircraft is between 3 NM and 160 NM from the facility, below _40_ degrees above the horizon (as viewed from the facility) and if the DME/DME include angle is between _30_ degrees and _150_degrees. Reference ICAO PBN Manual Doc 9613 Volume 2 Chapter 3 Implementing RNAV1 3.3.3.2.2 Criteria for distance measuring equipment (DME/DME RNAV system)
* Which ARINC 424 Path Terminators were used to codify this procedure? IF, TF * Which of these points is an entry point of the procedure? 1. LAKUT 2. BALTI 3. PODOM 4. HK711 5. HK801 * Which of these points is an exit point of the procedure? 1. LAKUT 2. BALTI 3. PODOM 4. HK711 5. HK801 * When a pilot, within the geographical area enclosed by this chart, tunes the radio for the frequency 113.700MHz, what can (s)he do? 1. voice communication with the tower position 2. voice communication with the approach position 3. listen to ATIS recording 4. distance measurement to a beacon 5. bearing measurement to a beacon 6. both distance and bearing measurements to a beacon
III (7/20) The following information is given about air traffic at a particular runway of an airport. Aircraft type Approach speed (knots) Mix (%) Runway occupancy time on landing (s) Heavy (1) 136 15 55 Medium (2) 136 75 52 Light (3) 130 10 52 The length of the final approach to the runway is 9 nmi. Aircraft can be classified in three types: Heavy (H), Medium (M) and Light (L) The minimum separation requirements (in nautical miles) between successive landing aircraft on final approach are given by the matrix below (rows indicate leading aircraft and columns the following aircraft) 1(H) 2(M) 3(L) I(H) 4 5 6 2(M) 3 3 5 3(L) 3 3 3 a) Suppose the runway is used for arrivals only. Find its (maximum throughput) capacity. b) Mixed mode operations with free departures : for which of the arrival pairs Leader-Follower H-L, H-M, H-H, M-M can a departure be inserted between the two arrivals without increasing the separations between sucessive two arrivals? The following asumptions apply A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the runway threshold on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft has crossed the end of the runway-in-use, Takeoff cannot begin until the preceding landing aircraft has cleared the runway. Runway occupancy time on departure = 90 s a) Time Separation Matrix 1(H) 2(L) 3(S) 1(H) 106 132 177 2(L) 79 79 149 3(S) 79 79 83
Probability of Leading/Trailing Pairs 1(H) 2(L) 3(S) I(H) 0.02 0.11 0.02 2(L) 0.11 0.56 0.08 3(S) 0.02 0.08 0.01 Expected time separation 92.7 sec Average runway capacity 38.8 arrivals/hr b) 55 s + 90 s A departure can be inserted between H-S pair H-S interarrival time 177s > 145 s =55+90
IV (2.5/20) = REGULATION YES / NO? YES / NO? YES / NO? YES / NO? a) How are the 4 flights in the chart affected by the different Network Manager areas of operation?. Select YES if the flight is submited to ATFCM measures. Select NO if the flight is not submited to ATFCM measures. A flight departing from within ATFCM area -> YES A flight departing from a FIR immediately adjacent to the ATFCM area and entering the ATFCM area -> YES A flight departing from a FIR immediately adjacent to the ATFCM area and not entering the ATFCM area ->NO A flight departing from outside the ATFCM area and ouside FIRs immediately adjacent to the ATFCM area b) The EUROCONTROL Network operations Pre-Tactical Flow Management phase occurs [ ] in the day of operation (D-day) [ ] seven days or more before the day of operation [x] in the six days before the day of operation [ ] in the two days before the day of operation (D-1,D-2)
c) Consider the Single Airport Ground Holding Problem studied in the practical classes. Mark each sentence T(rue)/F(alse): [F] this problem applies only to a single departure airport [T] this problem applies only to a single arrival airport [F] this problem applies only to a single departure and a single arrival airport [T] this is a discrete optimization problem [T] this is a linear optimization problem [F] this is an unconstrained optimization problem