Airmen s Academic Examination

Similar documents
Airmen s Academic Examination

Airmen s Academic Examination

REGULATIONS OF THE CIVIL AVIATION BOARD NUMBER 75 ON PRIVILEGES OF HOLDERS OF PILOT, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER

Advanced Rating Study Guide

Section M. Airline Transport Pilot s Licence (Aeroplanes)

VFR GENERAL AVIATION FLIGHT OPERATION

RULES OF THE AIR 2007 NOT SUPERSEDED BY SERA (correct at 4 December 2014)

CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY PAKISTAN AGRICULTURAL RATING/OPERATION CONTENTS

Schedule 1 Units of Measurement Schedule 2 Voluntary Surrender of Licence

Part 121, Amendment 26. Air Operations Large Aeroplanes. Docket 14/CAR/3

CHAPTER 5 AEROPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS

Part 104 CAA Consolidation 1 March 2007 Gliders - Operating Rules

REGULATIONS (10) FOREIGN AIR OPERATORS

(Presented by Japan) SUMMARY

Contents. Subpart A General 91.1 Purpose... 7

GUYANA CIVIL AVIATION REGULATION PART X- FOREIGN OPERATORS.

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS PART 10 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT BY FOREIGN AIR OPERATORS WITHIN FEDERATED STATES OF MICRONESIA

AIRCRAFT SERIOUS INCIDENT INVESTIGATION REPORT

PART 107 SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS 597 Sec. Subpart A General Applicability Definitions Falsification, reproduction or

Requirements for Installing Supplemental White Strobe Lights on Rotorcraft

Safety Brief. February Keeping Current

Supplement No. 17 published with Gazette No. 22 dated 25 October, THE AIR NAVIGATION (OVERSEAS TERRITORIES) ORDER 2007, S.I No.

REGULATION No. 990/2017 on the operation of remotely piloted aircraft CHAPTER I. General provisions Article 1 Objective

Reporting Instructions FILING REQUIREMENTS

8.4.9 Fatigue Management. Republic of Korea

COMPANY POLICY Flight Safety & Operating Regulations

DOCUMENTATION Passport or photo ID Student pilot certificate Medical certificate (if applicable) TSA approval for foreign students

CCAR-129 XXXXX AIRLINES XXXX

Alternative Part 61 using Aviation Safety Standards Part 61 Promulgated pursuant to Sec 9(1)(c) of the Civil Aviation Act

GOVERNMENT GAZETTE REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA

An advisory circular may also include technical information that is relevant to the rule standards or requirements.

An advisory circular may also include technical information that is relevant to the rule standards or requirements.

Federal Aviation Regulations (including accident reporting, TSA security and light sport)

Part 63 CAA Consolidation 22 June 2006 Flight Engineer Licences and Ratings

CHAPTER 7 AEROPLANE COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT

2. REQUIREMENTS FOR OBTAINING INDIAN PILOT S LICENCES AND RATINGS

Part 125, Amendment 19. Air Operations Medium Aeroplanes. Docket 14/CAR/3

THE CIVIL AVIATION ACT (No. 21 of 2013 THE CIVIL AVIATION (OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT) (AMENDMENT) REGULATIONS, 2015

Sao Tome and Principe Civil Aviation Regulations

Chapter 6. Airports Authority of India Manual of Air Traffic Services Part 1

2013 UPDATES. Current Through: 07/19/13

CASAS Advisory Pamphlet

SERVICE LETTER REVISION

TRAINING COURSE INFORMATION CE-500 Initial Type Rating & CE-500 Single Pilot Exemption Initial

Appendix D Rules of the Air

Procedures for Approval of Master Minimum Equipment List

July 2008 COMPANY INDOCTRINATION TRAINING 1.0 PURPOSE

AIR NAVIGATION ORDER

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS PART III AVIATION TRAINING ORGANISATION

11/20/15 AC 61-98C Appendix 2 APPENDIX 2. SAMPLE AIRPLANE PILOT S PROFICIENCY PRACTICE PLAN. Flight Rules (VFR) Flight Profile Every 4-6 Weeks:

Edmonton Flying Club Building 18, 49 Airport Road Edmonton, Alberta, Canada T5G 0W6

FACTUAL REPORT AVIATION

Part 137. Agricultural Aircraft Operations. CAA Consolidation. 10 March Published by the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand

Civil Aviation Rules, 2052 (1996)

Regulations on Passenger Service Facility Charge for International Flights at Kansai International Airport

GACE Flying Club Ground Review Test, 2019 NAME: DATE: SCORE: CORRECTED BY: CFI# DATE:

Part 101 Gyrogliders and Parasails, Unmanned Aircraft (Including Balloons), Kites, and Rockets Operating Rules

HQ AFSVA/SVPAR. 1 May 2009

Notification of the Department of Air Transport. Re: Flight Operations Officer or Dispatcher Training Program

REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA DEPARTMENT OF COMMUNICATIONS CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY REGULATION (CASR)

Comparison. Annex 1 to the ICAO Convention JAR-FCL 1

AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

SUBPART C Operator certification and supervision

GOVERNMENT GAZETTE REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA

CAPR June 2004 is supplemented as follows:

Summary of Rule Changes - NZ CAA Omnibus Rule Project Effective 25 March 2010

2.1 Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane/Microlight)

Dave Burr - AFS-260. Steve Gibbs AFS-300

LAPL(A)/PPL(A) question bank FCL.215, FCL.120 Rev OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES 070

COMMISSION OF THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITIES. Draft. COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No /

CIVIL AVIATION REQUIREMENT SECTION 8 AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS SERIES F PART V ISSUE I, 29 TH JULY 2015 EFFECTIVE: 31 ST JULY 2015

SECTION TRAINING HELO. Date: 01/08/16 Page: 1 of Table of Contents Training, Helicopter

REPORT IN-038/2010 DATA SUMMARY

Part 101 Unmanned aircraft and rockets

Civil Aviation Authority INFORMATION NOTICE. Number: IN 2016/082

GHANA CIVIL AVIATION (FLIGHT STANDARDS) PART 10 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT BY FOREIGN AIR OPERATORS WITHIN GHANA

Subject: Replacing Critical parts without Spare Parts Certification for Aircraft used for International

Regulations of the Department of Civil Aviation on Certification of Check Airmen B.E

CHAPTER 5 SEPARATION METHODS AND MINIMA

SAN MARINO CIVIL AVIATION PROCEDURES PILOT LICENSING - GLIDERS OPERATIONS SM CAP PL 01 (G)

AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATION OF AIRCRAFT AND RELATED PRODUCTS. 1. PURPOSE. This change is issued to incorporate revised operating limitations.

ENGINEERS FLYING CLUB OKLAHOMA CITY, OKLAHOMA OPERATIONS MANUAL

CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY, PAKISTAN OPERATIONAL CONTROL SYSTEMS CONTENTS

Contents. Part 135 Air Operations Helicopters and Small Aeroplanes 5

REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION

National Transportation Safety Board Aviation Accident Final Report

PART XIII - AIR TRANSPORT SERVICES

2012 UPDATES. Current Through: 12/19/11

FACTUAL REPORT AVIATION

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA OFFICE OF THE DIRECTOR GENERAL OF CIVIL AVIATION TECHNICAL CENTRE, OPP SAFDURJUNG AIRPORT, NEW DELHI.

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA OFFICE OF THE DIRECTOR GENERAL OF CIVIL AVIATION TECHNICAL CENTRE, OPP SAFDURJUNG AIRPORT, NEW DELHI

IFR SEPARATION WITHOUT RADAR

CIVIL AVIATION ACT (Act No. 11 of 2011)

Index to Paragraph Numbers - OTAR Parts 91, 125, 135, 121 Issue 10-0

INTERNATIONAL CIVIL AVIATION ORGANIZATION FIRST MEETING OF DIRECTORS OF CIVIL AVIATION OF THE CARIBBEAN REGION (CAR/DCA/1)

National Transportation Safety Board Aviation Accident Final Report

FACTUAL REPORT AVIATION

EU-OPS Operations Manual Checklist/Compliance Schedule

TABLE OF CONTENTS 1.0 INTRODUCTION...

DESIGNATED PILOT EXAMINER. Skill Test Standards. for

Transcription:

ualification Subject Airmen s Academic Examination Airline Transport Pilot (Airplane, rotorcraft and airship) Multi-crew Pilot (Airplane) Civil Aeronautics Law (subject code: 04) No. of questions; time allowed Code CCCC0418B0 E4 20 questions; 40 minutes Explanatory Notes: (1) In the designated spaces on the Airmen s Academic Examination Answer Sheet (Multiple-Choice Answers) (mark sheet), write your examinee number, examinee number mark, subject, subject code, subject code mark, qualification, qualification category, name, and date of birth. If you write your examinee number, examinee number mark, subject code, and/or subject code mark incorrectly, computer grading will not be possible and you will fail the subject. (2) Write your answers on the Airmen s Academic Examination Answer Sheet (Multiple- Choice Answers) (mark sheet). Point Allocation: Pass Mark: All questions are worth five points each. The pass mark is 70 %. 1/6

1 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) are correct regarding the content of Article 2 (Definition) of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to below. (a) (b) (c) (d) The term "instrument meteorological condition" means bad weather conditions with a range of vision, specified by Ordinances of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, taking the visibility and cloud conditions into consideration. The term "air traffic control area" means any airspace, 200 meters or more above the land or water, and designated for the safety of air traffic in the public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism. The term "international air transport services" means any air transport services operating between one point in the country and another in a foreign country, or between one point and another in foreign countries. The term "instrument flight" means a flight which is performed relying solely on flight instruments to measure the attitude, altitude, position, and course of the aircraft. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 4 2 Which of the following statements regarding airworthiness certification is incorrect? (1) No aircraft may be granted airworthiness certification, unless it has Japanese nationality; provided, however, that the same shall not apply to any aircraft as specified by Cabinet Order. (2) Airworthiness certification shall describe the categories of aircraft and the operating method of aircraft as prescribed by Ordinances of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism. (3) No person may operate an aircraft unless it has a valid airworthiness certificate; provided, however, that the same shall not apply to any person when permitted performing test flights etc. by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism. The period of validity of an airworthiness certificate shall be one year; provided, however, that the period of validity of such airworthiness certificate with regard to aircraft used for air transport services shall be the period specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism. 3 Which of the following statements regarding the validity periods of aviation medical certification for an airline transport pilot who operates an aircraft for air transport services to transport passengers is correct? (1) In the case that the flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilot is under 60 at the date of issuance: 1 year (2) In the case that the flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilot is 40 or over at the date of issuance: 9 months (3) In the case that the flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilot is under 40 at the date of issuance: 2 years In the case that the flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilot is 60 or over at the date of issuance: 9 months 2/6

4 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) are correct regarding the Aviation English Proficiency Certification? Choose from (1) to below. (a) (b) (c) (d) A pilot who engages in a flight conducted between a point within Japan and a point outside of Japan needs to have an Aviation English Proficiency Certification. A pilot who engages in a flight that leaves Japan and arrives in Japan, passing territories of a country other than Japan without landing, does not need to have Aviation English Proficiency Certification. The categories of aircraft which require their pilots to hold an Aviation English Proficiency Certification are aeroplanes and rotorcraft. The validity period of the Aviation English Proficiency Certification is 2 years. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 4 5 6 7 The following is a part of the provisions of Article 179 (Speed limitation in air traffic control zones, etc.) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act. Which one of the underlined values (1) to is incorrect? 1 In the case of aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed under item (i) of Article 82-2 (Air traffic control zones, etc.) of the Act and concurrently in the air space at an altitude of (1) 900 meters or less, the indicated air speed listed for each of the classifications of aircraft specified below: a Aircraft equipped with reciprocating engines: (2) 160 knots b Aircraft equipped with turbine engines: (3) 210 knots 2 In the case of aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed under item (i) of Article 82-2 (Air traffic control zones, etc.) of the Act and concurrently in the air space at an altitude exceeding (1) 900 meters, or aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed in the public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, which adjoins to an air traffic control zone within approach control area, the indicated air speed of: 250 knots Which of the following aircraft lights is correct as the lights by which an aircraft engaged in operations in the air at night shall be marked, as specified in Article 154 (Aircraft lights) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? (1) Starboard lights, port lights and anti-collision lights (2) (3) Starboard lights, port lights and landing lights Starboard lights, port lights, tail lights, and anti-collision lights Starboard lights, port lights, tail lights, and landing lights Which of the following correctly describes the requirements regarding the obstacle markings? (1) Any person who has installed any objects with a height of 60 meters or more above the ground or the water, shall install obstacle markings upon such object pursuant to the provision of Ordinances of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism. (2) Any chimney flue, steel tower, column, and other object which is extremely narrow in width relative to its height and which is considered difficult to perceive from aircraft in daylight shall be provided with obstacle markings. (3) The obstacle markings shall include color of coatings, flags, and marking means. Obstacle markings shall also be installed on an object on which high intensity obstacle lights must be installed. 3/6

8 Which of the following documents (a) to (d) must be carried onboard an aircraft used for air transport services? Choose the correct true/false combination from options (1) to. (a) Onboard flight logbook (b) Documents specifying operating limitation (c) Aircraft registration certificate (d) Operation manual (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) True False True True (2) True True True True (3) True True False True True True True False 9 10 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the aircraft that shall be boarded by an airman who can pilot the aircraft beside the pilot-in-command as stipulated by Article 65 (Aircrew to be on Board Aircraft) of the Civil Aeronautics Act? (1) Aircraft, because of its structure, which needs two persons for pilotage of aircraft (2) Aircraft which needs two persons for pilotage only for the purpose of a flight according to the special methods and rules, and engages in flights according to the special methods and rules (3) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and engages in flights under instrument flight rules Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and engages in flights, the duration of which exceeds three hours Which of the following statements regarding the recent flight experience of a pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services is correct? (1) A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of at least six night-time take-offs and six night-time landings respectively in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, within the 180 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties. (2) Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have more than 5 hours instrument flight experience (including simulator flight) over the 180 days preceding the date of flight maneuvers. (3) Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have more than 3 hours instrument flight experience (including simulator flight) over the 90 days preceding the date of flight maneuvers. A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of at least three takeoffs and three landings respectively in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, within the 90 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties. 11 Regarding Article 71-3 (Examination, etc. for Specific Pilot Competence) of the Civil Aeronautics Act, a pilot is approved to have the specific pilot competence for the category of aircraft which the person intends to operate and is not required to take the specific pilot competence examination by the pilot competence examiner in the following cases. Which one is incorrect? (1) When the person has obtained the flight instructor certificate (2) When the person has obtained the pilot competence certificate (3) When the person has changed the rating on the pilot competence certificate When the person has passed the competency assessment conducted by a Japanese air carrier based on its operation manual. 4/6

12 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the obligation, authority, etc. of the pilot-incommand? (1) The pilot in command may, when a danger occurs or he/she deems to a danger to be likely to occur to the aircraft or passengers, order the passengers on board regarding the procedures for evacuation or other matters necessary for safety. (2) The pilot in command may restrain any person who threatens aircraft safety, irrespective of whether the person is on board or not. (3) The pilot in command shall, when an emergent danger occurs to the aircraft during flight, employ every possible means necessary for rescuing passengers and preventing injury or damage to persons or objects on the land or water. The pilot in command shall direct and supervise those who perform their duties on board the aircraft. 13 How many of the following events (a) to (d) are correct in terms of Article 166-2 (Report on abnormality) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to below. (a) Failure in functions of aerodromes and air navigation facilities (b) Turbulence of air and other abnormal weather conditions (c) Volcanic explosion and other violent changes in terrestrial and watery phenomena (d) Cases impeding the safe flight of aircraft (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 4 14 How many of the following events (a) to (d) are correct in terms of Article 166-4 (Report on a case likely to cause an accident) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to below. (a) (b) (c) (d) Landing on a closed runway or a runway being used by other aircraft or attempt of landing Case where aircraft crew executed an emergency operation during navigation in order to avoid crash into water or contact on the ground Shortage of fuel requiring urgent measures Case where aircraft crew became unable to perform services normally due to injury or disease (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 4 15 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the method of navigation in the vicinity of an airport, etc.? (1) The aircraft shall not take off when the Instrumental Flight Rules is being used for take off and the meteorological condition at the airports, etc. does not meet the minimum condition for take off. (2) The landing approach may be continued when the Instrumental Flight Rules is being used for landing and the meteorological condition does not meet the minimum condition for continuing the landing approach at the relevant airport when the aircraft passes above the approach height threshold at a specified location. (3) The landing approach shall not be continued when the Instrumental Flight Rules is being used for landing and the position of the aircraft cannot be confirmed by visual reference of landmarks at a point below the approach height threshold. The aircraft shall follow the approach procedure based on the instrumental flight procedure and the flight procedure established for the relevant airport etc. 5/6

16 17 Which of the following statements is incorrect as provisions of Article 191-4 (The Standards for the Permit for Air Navigation under Particular Flight Rules) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? (1) The aircraft shall have the functionality and the system which are needed for air navigation under particular flight rules. (2) The aircraft crew, the aircraft maintenance personnel and the flight dispatcher shall have the knowledge and experience necessary for the air navigation under particular flight rules. (3) The summary of operations shall be appropriately defined for each navigation and aircraft types based on air navigation under particular flight rules. Necessary measures shall be taken to secure a safe navigation of aircraft. How many of the following items (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 194 (Articles Prohibited from Being Transported) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to below. (a) Toxic substances (b) Corrosive substance (c) Oxidizing substances (d) Inflammable liquid (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 4 18 Which of the following cruising altitudes for an RVSM-approved aircraft flying under IFR is incorrect in the light of Article 177 (Cruising altitude) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? (1) When the heading of the aircraft is 0 or more to less than 180 in magnetic bearing: 41,000 ft (2) When the heading of the aircraft is 180 or more to less than 360 in magnetic bearing: 42,000 ft (3) When the heading of the aircraft is 0 or more to less than 180 in magnetic bearing: 45,000 ft When the heading of the aircraft is 180 or more to less than 360 in magnetic bearing: 43,000 ft 19 Which of the following statements is incorrect as a description of Article 188 (Movement on ground) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? (1) The power system shall be controlled or the breaking system shall be lightly used to maintain speed that may be quickly and safely stopped. (2) The forward view shall be thoroughly observed. (3) The speed shall not exceed the speed limit specified for the restricted area. When there is a danger of collision with aircraft or other objects, the ground guide shall be provided. 20 Which of the following items need not be stated in the Operation Manual? (1) Minimum weather conditions in which an aircraft may take-off or land (2) Standards for aircraft performance limitations in cases where components, parts and emergency equipments are not used under normal circumstances (3) Procedures for performing maintenance of airframes and equipments, etc. Procedures for operation and inspection of aircraft 6/6